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A failure of replication is not great evidence that the original effect is not real (see John Quiggin's discussion, here: Philosophers need to stop placing much weight on any one finding, positive or negative (I am as guilty of this as anyone). In this particular case, I think we can be confident that the effect is real. We can also be confident that it is fragile: it certainly isn't the case that anyone has shown that shaking belief in free will leads to cheating.

Neil, why should we be confident that this particular effect is real?

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Books about Agency

3QD Prize 2014: Marcus Arvan